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Splitting up - being bought out of a house

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Pilch | 13:13 Thu 10th Nov 2005 | Business & Finance
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I split up with my partner 3 years ago, he bought me out of a house and I had a considerable amount of money given to me. I never had a solicitors but he did. I basically signed the house over to him, would that mean then that his solicitor would have contacted the Land Registry to get my names off the deeds.

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Well when you say you 'signed' it over I presume you must have signed a legal document. I am surprised you were not advised by his solicitor to get one of your own, just to ensure that everything was fair. Were you ever on the morgage ? If you want to check you can go to the Land Registry website I think and pay a small fee to find out who is registered as the owner. I think it would be a good idea to know for sure just in case of future problems.
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If I go on the Land Registry site it is �2.00 to see who is on the deeds, if I did it, would he ever find out I have been looking, as I don't want him too, Yes I was on the mortgage it was a joint mortgage, because it was a amicable split at the time, we used one solicitor he appionted... My head was not quite there at the time, very distressing.
The land registry site is annonimous so by all means check, there is no way he can know. However If he got a solicitor to do the work and paid you a fair settlement I would be pretty dam certain that you're no longer registered to the property. Forget "Deeds" for 99% of properties they are of historical curiosity only what matters legally is what is recorded at the land registry.
Well I am sure it would have all been done properly although there does seem to be a conflict of interest with one solicitor acting for both of you .. however as long as you are sure your name is no longer on the mortgage then I am sure its all ok.
I think, but dont take my word for it, the solicitor in question may well have been acting in bad fatih in that he was not satisfied that you had received adequate legal advice on the subject, which is possibly a requirement for land transactions - can anyone confirm or deny?

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