ChatterBank1 min ago
Britain's First Male Mum
If this person was born a female and had a sex change how is it possible to have a baby between consenting males? Don't homosexuals use a different passage?
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No best answer has yet been selected by rov1100. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.
For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.it's not clear from the reports how his genitals function, but he still had a uterus and that's where the baby grew. I imagine he still had a vagina too, and conception was achieved the usual way.
If he's attracted to both sexes then he's bisexual; but I've no idea how he classifies his own sex.
More anal sex among straights than gays, but then there *are* more straights than gays.
If he's attracted to both sexes then he's bisexual; but I've no idea how he classifies his own sex.
More anal sex among straights than gays, but then there *are* more straights than gays.
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