Quizzes & Puzzles2 mins ago
Flat reposessed...still have to pay?????
5 Answers
What do you think about ...in Spain ,if one`s home is reposessed(or a car),one has to continue paying the mortgage (or finance) even though one does not have it anymore....surely this cannot be just or fair!!!
Can anyone throw some light on this ridiculous situation.....
Can anyone throw some light on this ridiculous situation.....
Answers
Best Answer
No best answer has yet been selected by kloofnek. Once a best answer has been selected, it will be shown here.
For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.A lot is going to depend on circumstances (and I know nothing of Spanish law)
If, in the UK, you bought a car with finance, there are two separate contracts, one for the purchase of the car, and one with the finance company. If the finance company repossess the car then it is to cover the outstanding debt, and as long as the car is worth more than the debt then you should be able to stop paying. But if the car (Due to accidental damage etc.,) is worth less than the outstanding debt then you would still owe the finance company some money.
If the car were repossessed by the police, as the seller didn't actually own the car (a 'ringer' or whatever) then you would have a claim against the person who sold you the car (if you can find them) but you would still have a debt to the finance company.
I don't know how this links to your Spanish probm, I'm just pointing out that something similar could happen in the UK.
If, in the UK, you bought a car with finance, there are two separate contracts, one for the purchase of the car, and one with the finance company. If the finance company repossess the car then it is to cover the outstanding debt, and as long as the car is worth more than the debt then you should be able to stop paying. But if the car (Due to accidental damage etc.,) is worth less than the outstanding debt then you would still owe the finance company some money.
If the car were repossessed by the police, as the seller didn't actually own the car (a 'ringer' or whatever) then you would have a claim against the person who sold you the car (if you can find them) but you would still have a debt to the finance company.
I don't know how this links to your Spanish probm, I'm just pointing out that something similar could happen in the UK.
Related Questions
Sorry, we can't find any related questions. Try using the search bar at the top of the page to search for some keywords, or choose a topic and submit your own question.