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The Nuremburg Trials After Ww2.

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sandyRoe | 11:19 Thu 20th Mar 2014 | Law
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Apart from victor's justice what justification, if any, did the allies have for holding these trials?
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May be to set an example to the rest of the world,especially Uncle Joe, that genocide and mass murder will not be tolerated by future civilizations.
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Woofgang, after the war a lot of Nazi leaders were tried at Nuremburg and some were executed. I don't think that had happened after previous wars. Napoleon, for example, was exiled rather than being tried for his actions.
The allies were accused that although aware of the extermination camps earlier in the war they did nothing about it.This was mainly due to logistics,distance,etc.By bombing the camps they do the enemies task for them.The allies had to liberate the wider Europe before liberating the camps.I suppose it appeased the jewish appetite for revenge.Simon Wiesenthal never gave up bringing Nazis to justice for their crimes
I'm not sure if this link helps or not sandy, but it seems to have started in the fall out from WW1, and there were certainly statements of intent going back to '42/'43

http://www.holocaust-history.org/imt-jurisdiction/
Because the global view of what law should cover and how it should be enforced changes and jurisdiction grows. first you have the biggest toughest person in the group enforcing their views on the rest until someone bigger and tougher comes along, then people learn how to band together so the group agrees what the rules are, then the rules get written down and transcend the changes to group membership and so on.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nuremberg_Trials

According to the Wiki page The Leipzig Trials of May 1921 set a precedent and then as WW2 progressed there was an escalation of intent from the Allies

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