My husband works a job in which he has been paid a week in hand. We recently took 2 weeks holiday and yesterday was the first Friday back since our holidays, Friday is pay day. His employer has not paid him this week. Am I right in thinking that he should have been paid for the week's work he did prior to us going on holiday this pay day? The week he finished for holidays he was paid for the previous week he worked and then whilst on holiday he received two weeks holiday pay. Surely now he should have received payment for the week he worked leading up to our holiday? I am so confused, would appreciate anyone's knowledge on this. Many thanks