Vehicle payout

[Bazile]

Vehicle owner A is involved in an accident with vehicle owner B

Owner B makes a claim against the insurers of owner A
Liability is agreed on a 50/50 basis

B's vehicle is declared a write off with a pre accident value of � 2300 and a salvage value of � 300

B sells the salvage for � 300

How much must the insurance company pay B ?

[Ethel]

�2k less excess, I assume.

[Bazile]

excess is not applicable because B in not making the claim through his insurer , but rather , through the insurer of A

Also , dont forget that B is 50 % liable for the accident .

This is an actual situation i'm attempting to resolve .

[pauln90]

Hard to give a value of the car. You may think the market value is �2300 but the insurance company will undoubtably offer quite a bit less and you will have to haggle to get a valuation nearer to your own

[spaced]

the insurers will offer a TRADE value. DO NOT ACCEPT THIS!!! Get a copy of the Glass guide check the value of your car before the accident, use this as proof and make sure they pay you the �2300. THis happened to me. My car was valued at �1500 in glasses, insurers tried offering me �600 TRADE cost. Im not a trader and therefore could not repalce like for like with �600. As im a fleet manager I got a copyf of the value of the car, faxed it over, and received a cheque for �1500.

[Bazile]

This question is about the maths of the payout rather than the valuation . The valuation is not disputed , and both parties being 50 % to blame is accepted .

What I am attempting to clarify is - if B has sold the salvage and got � 300 for it - should the insurer pay him 50 % of 2k - i.e � 1k , but reduce the 1k by �150 ( 50 % of
� 300 - because B was 50 % liable ) OR shouldn't the insurer take the � 300 into account , and just pay B 1K