Editor's Blog6 mins ago
Queen Elizabeth Iii?
38 Answers
The first Queen Elizabeth was the daughter of Henry VIII. The second Queen Elizabeth was the Queen Mother. So why is our Queen, Elizabeth the Second, and not the Third?
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For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.Wanting things to be historically accurate is not a sign of having a chip on one's shoulder, TTT! Perhaps you're happy to allow government or royal edicts to overrule the facts...I'm not! As Rabbie Burns wrote about two and a half centuries ago, "Facts are chiels that wonna ding." Simply put, you may not like the facts, but you cannot overturn them just by wishing it so.
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I genuinely have no idea why you addressed your comment to me, Murdo. Did you bother reading all the earlier responses before providing yours? My point above and earlier is that it is an historical fact that - since the Union of the Crowns in 1603...ie effectively the creation of Great Britain...there has been only one reigning monarch called Elizabeth and she is the current inhabitant of Buckingham Palace. That makes her, in historical fact, Queen Elizabeth the First. As I have also pointed out, governmental or royal decisions/edicts cannot alter that.
I have no interest in Queens Consort or any other irrelevant factors.
I have no interest in Queens Consort or any other irrelevant factors.
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It is a social construct
first time for the courtiers that the Dowager Queen ( Elizabeth ) had the same name as the reigning monarch ( er also Elizabeth) and so unlike Queen Mary ( lately married to the late Georgie-Porgie er V that is !) there would be confusion.
so they made up "Queen Mother" - not as Queen and Mother but an irregular genitive Queen's Mother
Aaaaaanyway I thought you were gonna point out that Scotland had no Elizabeth ( 1) and England had ( II ) and the United Kingdom hadnt ( I)
so why wasnt she Elizabeth I, II and I ?
Hmm Yeah.....
When James became King of England after being King of Scotland
they sat down with pencils in their mouths and .....
came up with an act of parliament
Titulary Act 1603 I think - and said his name would be ... James VI and I
First time I think a king without a predecessor got a regnal number
( pope F is Pope Frankie NOT Francis I )
and you will find a titulary act in 1952
where her name shall be .......
sorry long answer but you did ask
first time for the courtiers that the Dowager Queen ( Elizabeth ) had the same name as the reigning monarch ( er also Elizabeth) and so unlike Queen Mary ( lately married to the late Georgie-Porgie er V that is !) there would be confusion.
so they made up "Queen Mother" - not as Queen and Mother but an irregular genitive Queen's Mother
Aaaaaanyway I thought you were gonna point out that Scotland had no Elizabeth ( 1) and England had ( II ) and the United Kingdom hadnt ( I)
so why wasnt she Elizabeth I, II and I ?
Hmm Yeah.....
When James became King of England after being King of Scotland
they sat down with pencils in their mouths and .....
came up with an act of parliament
Titulary Act 1603 I think - and said his name would be ... James VI and I
First time I think a king without a predecessor got a regnal number
( pope F is Pope Frankie NOT Francis I )
and you will find a titulary act in 1952
where her name shall be .......
sorry long answer but you did ask
-- answer removed --
Edward VI was an English king, not a British one! I'm simply stating my view that, when a "new" country is established, its line of rulers thereafter should start afresh as well. How can any Queen reasonably be dubbed "the Second" of any given country, when there has never been one called "the First" of that same country?
But what the hey! I'll leave it at that and you can go on believing what you want.
But what the hey! I'll leave it at that and you can go on believing what you want.
read about the "titular" case (from 1953) here:-
http:// www.bai lii.org /scot/c ases/Sc otCS/19 53/1953 _SC_396 .html
http://