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It's the way they tell 'em

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andy hughes | 08:03 Sat 29th Jun 2002 | News
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On the BBC News yesterday, reference was made to "the rise in the number of women who choose not to have children ...". I'm curious to know why reference was made to the 'rise' in women not having children, and not to the 'fall' in women who do have children - is it a matter of perspective, story angle, grammar, or choice? Any thoughts?
  
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I'd say it was due to the fact that choosing not to have children (as opposed to being unable) is a deliberate and conscious decision and therefore takes the active voice.
The fall in the number of women who have children could conceivably (ouch!) be due to other factors, such as declining fertility and so on. The crux of the story was that an active choice is being made.
Yes - it's evidence that having children is the perceived norm in our culture because not having children is exceptional. There's also the cultural convention that inability to reproduce is taboo, so again 'choosing not to have children' is pseudo-judgmental socio-code for 'not having children but there's nothing wrong with her'.

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