ChatterBank0 min ago
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For more on marking an answer as the "Best Answer", please visit our FAQ.Don't say that Sloopy. I got roundly told off by a judge about 5 years ago for using latin. And I also remember a bail application which was one of my first cases "on my feet". I was representing a lithuanian who had been charged with rape. The only interpreter we could get was russian. I stood up and told the judge that one of the factors in play why he should be given bail was because he acted "in loco parentis" to his girlfriend's children. The prosecutor passed me a note which said "from latin to english to russian to lithuainian, that's going to come out as "my parents are both steam trains"!" HOw I didn't laugh I shall never know.
Sloopy, as BM discovered, there has been a move away from Latin and 'legalistic' terms in recent years, encouraged by the senior judiciary. That's why plaintiffs are now claimants,for example. It is all some idea to make the law friendlier and easier to understand but it does not, in itself, do anything of the kind. Calling a quia timet injunction a "because he is frightened injunction" would not help any litigant much and a good many Latin terms in law are convenient and used because they are established, readily understood and precise. Doctors will use scapula, clavicle, oesophagus and more, all clear terms, when doing reports for other doctors. They can explain the same in everyday speech, to patients.So can lawyers explain their language, if needed.
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