Ermm - seems all a little strange, tbh. Was she on warfarin prior to the pregnancy or during the pregnancy? There are conditions ,such as pregnancy induced hypercoagulability, the clinical significance of which could be a DVT or similar pulmonary embolism, but mostly they would tend to use Low Molecular Weight Heparin. Warfarin could theoretically have a teratogenic effect prior to 6 weeks gestation ( although it seems to be ok after that)
Therefore, only if she is at high risk for hypercoaguability would they be using prophylactic anticoagulation, ( hereditary coagulation factor disorder, previous history of DVT, AntiThrombin III deficiency), and this usually starts 3-6 months prior to birth , and will continue after birth for around 3 months or so.
I dont think her having sepsis would be a reason to treat with coagulant therapy.Sepsis can, in some circumstances, cause a derangement of the coagulation pathway ( interference due to byproducts of the inflammatory process which can also be involved with the coagulation pathway).There have been some studies of the use of anticoagulant therapies in sepsis, but a recent meta-review of the 11 best trials, totalling around 5000 patients, concluded that they do not improve sepsis significantly, especially when compared to the risk of bleeding,
@ Im a busybee - That I am aware of, Warfarin is only available as an oral therapy, in tablet form, so your daughter could not have been self-injecting with warfarin. Given that a high BMI could, in pregnancy, be a significant risk factor for DVT or PE, then the precautionary principle and ethics of medicine say that your daughter should be treated prophylatically in exactly the manner she was - Absolutely not a "waste of time and money" .
I think she would have been self- injecting Low Molecular Weight Heparin, rather than warfarin.