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allen ives | 12:32 Thu 30th May 2002 | History
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Why did the British adopt left-side driving when in most of Europe right-side driving was the norm? (It's probably been covered here before, so just point me in the right direction). Thanks.
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It isn't that, but the fact that the UK was never conquered by Napoleon, who implemented this.
I've been told it's due to the old horse and carriages. A rider would generally have one horse on his carriage and with most people being right handed they'd hold the whip in their right hand. To avoid slashing at pedestrians, they would ride on the left. Thus we have evolved from this. I don't know why this never happened elsewhere, maybe they have wider roads, or two horses, where the would rider sat centrally. Oh well!
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Thanks, Karst and Danny, but both answers are a bit Anglo-centric, I think. Alright, so Napoleon was to blame. But why did he choose right over left? And how did it extend to all of Europe, bar the UK and Sweden (?). And if it's right about horses, whips, swords, and so on, again why was it different across the channel?
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Coincidentally, I read this in today's Guardian, being a reprinted letter from the Sunday Telegraph of May 26...

The idea that it was Napoleon who influenced most of the world to drive on the right is fanciful to say the least. A look at veteran cars from America and Europe shows the driver's seat firmly fixed to the right. After all, they were called horsless carriages. No, the blame is entirely with Henry Ford.

During the design of the Model T, it was decided that Americans would find it difficult changing gear with their left hand, so the steering wheel was placed on the left to free the right hand. This car was produced in millions and by force of numbers influenced the change to driving on the right in many countries. Britain remained steadfastly on the left as did its empire and indeed a lot of mainland Europe... Japan's burgeoning car industry was British-influenced and that is why they drive on the correct side.

Not comprehensive, I know, but it does take the debate a step forward. Anyay, where's incitatus in our hour of need? He would know the answer. Come back inkie, we need you.

I'm pretty sure that it was because weapons and swords are generaly wielded on the right side and therefore any civilized country should cross on the left and unarmed side. Some Pope ( don't ask me I was asleep during that history lesson) decided that it would be better that way. I know this is a flakey explaination but I remember reading it somewhere honest. I personally have no preference whether I slay fellow road users with my left or right hand.
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Thanks for that briali, trouble is I remember a similar (but opposite) explanation which says that men should pass on the outside so that their 'weaker' companions (pace, sisters) would be better protected, hence driving on the left, with the man in the far right of the carriage...
Ok....Im back. the habit of the gentleman being on the outside with the lady on the insdie (left arm) comes from two things: keeping the sword arm free and protecting the lady from nightsoil hurled from windows. Similarly when knights met in the lists the were effectively driving on the left to allow the right arms to meet. horseriders kept up the same process...they met weapon arm to weapon arm, and this carried over into carriages and then cars. Europe was deeply affected by napoleon, but I believe the Ford notion has some milage to it. Its difficult to knoow why they all changed to such a silly idea. (Yes silly. fiddling left handed with carpark gates and toll money? PAH) If you look at very early Benz automobiles the driver was central. I suspect that the reason is that we industrialised very early compared to our neighbours, and needed a set side sooner. In fact I believe we had settld on a passing side before america was a world power. As to where I was: tendon repair operation.
so to cover the question: Europe decided after us. Why did they pick the right?
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Three stars for the pleasure of having you back...

However, the fundamental question remains unanswered, although I think we're getting there. Was there legislation in the cities, e.g. London, to make traffic pass on the left or the right, i.e. pre-automobiles?

And as far as Napoleon goes, WHY did he plump for the right when the left (see incitatus's answer) made more sense? Napoleon wasn't usually so far out in social reform terms, so how come the error? More please.

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And other point.... In The Mayor of Casterbridge, Thomas Hardy writes... "according to the strict rule of the road, Henchard's man was clearly in the wrong" or some such, referring to a collision between two horse-drawn wagons in Dorchester in about 1850. What strict rule of the road? Knowing that bit of Dorchester, it ain't particularly hilly, so it's not an up-hill down-hill question. Anyone know about pre-automobile highway codes?
The first recorded use of the European rule of the road is in 1300 when pilgrims visiting Rome for the Jubilee were chanelled across the St Angelo Bridge on diferent sides dependant on which way they were going. Dante recalls this in Inferno (cant remember the canto its either the sodomites on the burning sands, the lustful in the wind or the heretics in the Malboges)
I was talking to my husband about this topic the other day, he located this website for me. http://www.amphicars.com/acleft.htm Being that we are American and it is posed from "our" point of view... just remember, I didn't name the article!

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