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Ludwig, then the media have failed to report accurately on Epstein, and surely should face retribution for defamation?
In hundreds, no.. thousands of places, he is refereed to as the "billionare pedophile".
I'm sure the meida wish to be less liable than I, so why can they use this term without backlash, but I can't?
Channel4 made a doc called "the price and the paedophile".. The independent newspaper continuously refer to him as the "Billionaire paedophile". Would they be allowed to do this if he wasn't one?