And what I think the Geezer means about paying twice (as he tried to explain in words of one syllable at 14:17) is that he pays once via his NI contributions and then again in cash at the chemist. Of course his initial payment via NI unfortunately pays not for his own drugs but for everybody else’s. This is presumably because he is considered too well off, or not sufficiently “disadvantaged” to have his provided as part of his NI payments.
It is a great pity (and somewhat incomprehensible), answerprancer, that you consider Geezer’s question reeks of “...more drooling bitter fascism in action”. Bitter it may be (and I believe he is perfectly entitled to be bitter). But I cannot see how you can suggest he was “drooling” (dribbling, salivating) as we cannot see him. As for “fascism” (totalitarianism, oppression, tyranny): is it really tyrannical to suggest that if things are to be provided free at the point of delivery, they might at least be provided free to those people who have contributed to the fund that pays for them?
I don’t think so. But if you are foolish enough to believe such a scheme is OK, you might at least have the decency not to denigrate others who may not share your view.
Your point is perfectly valid, Geezer. And you may well extend it to those in other parts of the UK who all receive free prescriptions when the vast majority of the funding to support such a scheme comes from English taxpayers who do not share the privilege.